NEGO MCQ: March 2019

Archive for March 2019

The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of the __________ as possible.

Answer: bargaining range

Distributive bargaining strategies can cause negotiators to

Answer: ignore what the parties have in common.

What are the strategies for responding to hardball tactics?

Answer: ignore them, discuss them, respond in kind, co-opt the other party. Also discussed in the text but not listed specifically: preparation, familiarity with hardball tactics, identification and discussing the tactics, halting the negotiation process, team negotiations.

Discuss the importance of reciprocating (or not reciprocating) concessions.

Answer: Concession making indicates an acknowledgment of the other party and a movement toward the other's position. It implies a recognition of that position and its legitimacy. If the other party does not reciprocate, the concession maker may appear to be weaker by having given up something and received nothing in return. If the giver has made a major concession on a significant point, it is expected that the return offer will be on the same item or one of similar weight and somewhat comparable magnitude. To make an additional concession when none has been received (or when what was given was inadequate) can imply weakness and can squander valuable maneuvering room

Why is advantageous to make an extreme opening offer?

Answer: Gives more room for movement in negotiation and therefore more time to learn the other party's priorities. May create the impression that there is a long way to go before a reasonable settlement will be achieved and more concessions than originally intended may have to be made to bridge the difference between the two opening positions.

What are the four important tactical tasks for a negotiator in a distributive bargaining situation?

(1) Assess the other party's outcome values and the costs of terminating negotiations;
(2) manage the other party's impression of one's own outcome values;
(3) modify the other party's perception of his or her own outcome values;
(4) manipulate the actual costs of delaying or aborting negotiations.

List two situations when distributive bargaining strategies are useful.

Answer: When a negotiator wants to maximize the value obtained in a single deal and when the relationship with the other party is not important

Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining relationship discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major substantive ones have been raised?

Answer: How will we keep track of what is agreed to?

If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will

Answer: set and push for high objectives

Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences represents what key step in the negotiation process?

Answer: Relationship Building

Characteristics of collaborative strategies include:

Answer:

long-term focus
trust and openness
efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions
pursuit of goals held jointly with others

A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support a/an_________ strategy.

Answer: competitive

What are the advantages and disadvantages of limiting a negotiator's authority?

Answer: Advantages: Negotiators kept on a "short leash" cannot be won over by a persuasive presentation to commit their constituency to something that is not wanted. They cannot give out sensitive information carelessly. Disadvantages: When a negotiator always has to "check things out" with those he represents, the other party may refuse to continue until someone who has the power to answer questions and make decisions is brought to the table. The limited authority may frustrate the other and create an unproductive tension in the negotiating relationship.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of large bargaining mixes?

Answer: Large bargaining mixes give us more possible components and arrangements for settlement, thus increasing the likelihood that a particular package will meet both parties' needs and, therefore, increasing the likelihood of a successful settlement. At the same time, larger bargaining mixes can lengthen negotiations because there are more possible combinations of issues to consider, and combining and evaluating all these mixes makes things very complex

Define bargaining mix.

Answer: The combined lists of issues from each side in the negotiation

Research by Greenhalgh suggests there are seven key steps to an ideal negotiation process. What are those seven steps?

1) preparation,
(2) relationship building,
(3) information gathering,
(4) information using,
(5) bidding,
(6) closing the deal, and
(7) implementing the agreement.

What strategic negotiation purposes can be served by avoidance?

Answer: First, if you are able to meet your needs without negotiating at all, it may make sense to use an avoidance strategy. Second, it simply may not be worth the time and effort to negotiate. Third, the decision to negotiate is closely related to the desirability of available alternatives—what outcomes the negotiator can hope to achieve if negotiations fall through or don't work out. Finally, avoidance may be appropriate when the negotiator is responsible for developing others into becoming better negotiators.

Define strategy and tactics.

Answer: Tactics are short-term, adaptive moves designed to enact or pursue broader (or higher level) strategies, which in turn provide stability, continuity, and direction for tactical behaviors.

Why is important for goals to be concrete, specific and measurable?

Answer: The less concrete and measurable they are, the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want, to understand what he/she wants, and to determine whether any particular outcome satisfies our goals.

What are the three types of goals?

Answer: Substantive (tangibles), intangibles, and procedural

How much to believe of what the other party tells you?

Answer:

-depends on the reputation of the other party
-is affected by the circumstances of the negotiation.
-is related to how he or she treated you in the past.
-is the dilemma of trust.

Parties pursuing the __________ strategy show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes.

Answer: None of the above

An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using the _________ strategy.

Answer: contending

Describe a "mutual gains" situation.

Answer: when parties' goals are linked so that one person's goal achievement helps others to achieve their goals, it is a mutual-gains situation, also known as a non-zero-sum or integrative situation, where there is a positive correlation between the goal attainments of both parties.

What are the five major strategies for conflict management (as identified in the Dual Concerns framework)?

Answer: Contending, Yielding, Inaction, Problem Solving, and Compromising

Describe the strategies and tactics a negotiator would employ in a distributive bargaining situation.

Answer: In distributive situations negotiators are motivated to win the competition and beat the other party, or gain the largest piece of the fixed resource that they can. In order to achieve these objectives, negotiators usually employ "win-lose" strategies and tactics. This approach to negotiation—called distributive bargaining--accepts the fact that there can only be one winner given the situation, and pursues a course of action to be that winner. The purpose of the negotiation is to claim value---that is, to do whatever is necessary to claim the reward, gain the lion's share, or gain the largest piece possible.

What are concessions?

Answer: A concession has been made when one party accepts a change in his or her position. Concessions restrict the range of options within which a solution or agreement will be reached

Why do parties negotiate by choice?

Answer: That is, they negotiate because they think they can get a better deal by negotiating than by simply accepting what the other side will voluntarily give them or let them have. Negotiation is largely a voluntary process. We negotiate because we think we can improve our outcome or result, compared to not negotiating or simply accepting what the other side offers. It is a strategy pursued by choice; seldom are we required to negotiate.

What are tangible and intangible factors in negotiation?

Answer: Tangible factors: include quantifiable items, such as the price, terms of agreement, etc.
Intangible factors: we are referring to the deeper psychological motivations that may directly or indirectly influence the parties during the negotiation.

Adversaries can be described as

A) parties who will not take a stand one way or the other on the issue.
B) people with whom negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to
be principled and candid in their opposition.
C) parties who a negotiator believes are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom they trust.
D) negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust.
E) None of the above statements describes adversaries.

Answer: D

Bedfellows are parties with whom a negotiator has

A) high agreement and low trust.
B) low agreement and high trust.
C) low agreement and low trust.
D) high agreement and high trust.
E) Bedfellows have none of the above characteristics.

Answer: A

Allies can be defined as

A) people with whom a negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition.
B) parties who are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom the negotiator trusts.
C) parties with whom a negotiator has high agreement on the vision or objectives, but low to moderate levels of trust.
D) negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust.
E) None of the above statements defines allies.

Answer: B

Block argues that authentic tactics require parties to

A) say "yes" when they mean "no."
B) share only the information that is relevant to the issue at hand.
C) use language that describes reality.
D) reposition their endorsement or support for the sake of acceptance.
E) Authentic tactics require parties to do all of the above.

Answer: C

Strategic power in coalitions

A) emerges from the availability of alternative coalition partners.
B) derives from what parties consider a fair or just distribution of the outcomes and results of a coalition.
C) is dependent on which party's arguments ultimately shape the allocation rule used by the group.
D) is shaped by the compatibility of preferences between two or more parties.
E) Strategic power in coalitions is described by all of the above.

Answer: A

Which of the following statements about strength in coalitions is false?

A) Those parties who have relatively fewer resources in a coalition may be stronger.
B) The more resources one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a criticaL coalition member.
C) Coalition players with strength often become the center of communication networks.
D) The more power one holds or controls, the more likely that he or she will be a central figure in pulling the coalition together and dictating its strategy.
E) All of the above statements about strength in coalitions are true.

Answer: E

Those advocating a need allocation standard argue that

A) those who contributed more should receive more, in proportion to the magnitude of their contribution.
B) everyone should receive the same outcome.
C) parties should receive more in proportion to some demonstrated need for the resource.
D) decision rules in coalitions should be made on an individual, case-by-case basis.
E) Those advocating a need standard argue for all of the above.

Answer: C

The "strength-is-weakness" dynamic in coalitions states that

A) coalition founders will go to those who are the weakest for support.
B) the weakest members may need to be in the coalition the most.
C) the weakest members will demand the least payoff from joining the coalition.
D) the weakest members may hold power in the coalition.
E) The "strength is weakness" dynamic in coalitions states all of the above.

Answer: E

The "joining threshold" is

A) the total number of people who can join a specific coalition.
B) the level where a minimum number of people have joined a coalition and others begin to join because they recognize that their current friends and associates are already members.
C) the minimum number of people required for a coalition to be successful.
D) the level at which a new member must "pay" in order to join the coalition.
E) None of the above defines the joining threshold.

Answer: B

Coalitions build by

A) organizing members through formal meetings .
B) adding one member at a time.
C) mobilizing departments or divisions.
D) unification in a single, defining event.
E) Coalitions are built by all of the above.

Answer: B

What is the "paradox" of being a coalition founder?

A) Early in the coalition building process, the founder may have to give away a lot in order to apparently gain a little.
B) The founder's position shifts from strength to weakness as the coalition grows.
C) The founder is usually not a part of the leadership of the coalition.
D) The founder's early share in the coalition is large, and grows as more members are added.
E) None of the above describes the paradox of being a coalition founder.

Answer: A

Which of the following lists three of the major types of coalitions?

A) potential coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions
B) external coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions
C) latent coalitions, established coalitions, and potential coalitions
D) established coalitions, operating coalitions, and temporary coalitions
E) None of the above lists three major types of coalitions.

Answer: A

A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to

A) meet on a regular basis.
B) collectively focus their action on an intended target.
C) the formal hierarchy of the coalition.
D) maintain regular and accurate communication.
E) A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to all of the above.

Answer: B

Which of the following is not a property of a coalition?

A) A coalition is an interacting group of individuals.
B) A coalition is independent of the formal structure of the organization.
C) A coalition consists of mutually perceived membership.
D) A coalition is focused on a goal or goals internal to the coalition.
E) All of the above are properties of coalitions.

Answer: E

A constituency is Cu tri

A) one or more parties whose interests, demands, or priorities are being represented by the focal negotiator at the table.
B) a negotiator representing the interests of another party.
C) any individual or group of people who are not directly involved in or affected by a negotiation, but who have a chance to observe and react to the ongoing events.
D) two or more parties on the same side who are working together and collectively advocating the same positions and interests.
E) A constituency can be defined by all of the above.

Answer: A

Within relationships, we see that parties shift their focus considerably, away from a sole focus on price and exchange, to also attend to

A) the future of the relationship.
B) the level of trust between the parties.
C) the emotions and evaluations of the other negotiator.
D) questions of fairness.
E) Within relationships, parties shift their focus to attend to all of the above.

Answer: E

Which question that should be asked about working on the improvement of a relationship is false?

A) If the relationship is in difficulty, what might have caused it, and how can I gather information or perspective to improve the situation?
B) How can we take the pressure off each other so that we can give each other the freedom of choice to talk about what has happened, and what is necessary to fix it?
C) Trust repair is a long and slow process. It requires adequate explanations for past behavior, apologies, and perhaps even reparations. Interestingly, cultures differ in the way they manage this process
D) Must we surface the deeply felt emotions that have produced anger, frustration, rejection and disappointment? Should we effectively vent these emotions, or understand their causes, so that we can move beyond them?
E) How can we begin to appreciate each other's contributions, and the positive things that we have done together in the past? How can we restore that respect and value each other's contributions?

Answer: D

Denise Rousseau has researched and defined the "idiosyncratic deal" as the unique ways that employers may come to treat certain employees compared to others in the same office or environment. Which observation stated below is inaccurate?

A) Deals are more common when workers are willing to negotiate.
B) Deals are more likely to work effectively when performance criteria are clear and well specified.
C) Deals are more common in certain countries, such as the United States, the United Kingdom and New Zealand.
D) Deals are more common when workers are located in large organizations.
E) Deals are more likely to work when workers trust the performance appraisal process.

Answer: D

Which of the following conclusions about the issue of fairness is not a true statement?

A) Involvement in the process of helping to shape a negotiation strategy increases commitment to that strategy and willingness to pursue it.
B) Negotiators (buyers in a market transaction) who are encouraged ("primed") to think about fairness are more cooperative in distributive negotiations.
C) Parties who are made offers they perceive as unfair may reject them out of hand, even though the amount offered may be better than the alternative settlement, which is to receive nothing at all.
D) Establishment of some "objective standard" of fairness has a positive impact on the negotiations and satisfaction with the outcome.
E) All of the above are true statements.

Answer: E

How parties treat each other in one-to-one relationships is the process of which of the following justices?

A) Procedural
B) Interactional
C) Systemic
D) Distributive
E) None of the above

Answer: B

Which type of justice is about the process of determining outcomes?

A) Distributive
B) Interactive
C) Procedural
D) Systemic
E) None of the above.

Answer: C

All but one of the following actions contributes to increase identification-based trust. Which one does not contribute?

A) Stand for the same principles.
B) Monitor the other party's actions.
C) Develop similar interests.
D) Try to develop similar goals, objectives and scenarios.
E) Try to be interested in the same things.

Answer: B

In calculus-based trust

A) the trustor calculates the value of creating and sustaining trust in the relationship relative to the costs of severing it.
B) the relationship develops over time, largely because the parties develop a history of experience with each other which allows them to predict the other's behavior.
C) regular communication and courtship are key processes.
D) the parties effectively understand and appreciate the other's wants.
E) All of the above statements are inherent in calculus based trust.

Answer: A

Reputation is:

A) a perceptual identity.
B) reflective of the combination of personal characteristics.
C) demonstrated behavior.
D) intended images preserved over time.
E) all of the above statements define reputation.

Answer: E

What key elements become more critical and pronounced when they occur within a negotiation?

A) the agency relationship, the number of negotiation parties, and the role of emotion
B) the agency relationship and the role of trust and fairness
C) the roles of reputation, trust and justice
D) the structure of the constituency and the agency relationship
E) none of the above is key elements in managing negotiations within relationships

Answer: C

Which of the statements is supported by research in communal-sharing relationships?

A) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more cooperative and empathetic.
B) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship craft better quality agreements.
C) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship focus more attention on the norms that develop about their working together.
D) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more likely to share information with the other and less likely to use coercive tactics.
E) All of the above statements are supported by research in communal sharing relationships.

Answer: E

The values that govern a market pricing relationship are determined by a market system and include all but which of the following?

A) utility points
B) the relationship with the negotiator
C) ratio of price to goods
D) fair pricing
E) the dollars

Answer: B

Higher ranks dominate lower ranks is an example of "authority ranking" as a fundamental relationship form. Under what other form would you find the concept of "tit-for-tat" revenge?

A) communal sharing
B) authority ranking
C) equality matching
D) market pricing
E) none of the above

Answer: C

An example of authority ranking as a form of relationship would include

A) college roommates
B) fraternal organizations
C) auto salesperson and buyer
D) soldiers and their commander
E) church congregates

Answer: D

Communal sharing is a relationship of

A) unity, community, collective identity, and kindness.
B) asymmetric differences.
C) one-to-one correspondence.
D) balanced reciprocity.
E) None of the above describes a relationship of communal sharing.

Answer: A

Jeswald Salacuse suggests which rule for negotiating a relationship?

A) minimize the prenegotiation stage of the relationship
B) recognize a long-term business deal as a continuing negotiation
C) eliminate the need for mediation or conciliation
D) end all discussions when the contract is signed
E) Salacuse suggests all of the above rules for negotiating a relationship.

Answer: B

Because relationship negotiations are never over,

A) parties generally tackle negotiations over tough issues first in order to "get off on the right foot."
B) it is often impossible to anticipate the future and negotiate everything "up front."
C) issues on which parties truly disagree will go away with the conclusion of the negotiation.
D) parties should never make concessions on substantive issues.
E) All of the above are consequences of relationship negotiations.

Answer: B

Which of the following parameters shapes our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics?

A) Negotiating within relationships takes place at a single point in time.
B) Negotiation in relationships is only about the issue.
C) Negotiating within relationships may never end.
D) Parties never make concessions on substantive issues.
E) All of the above parameters shape our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics.

Answer: C

In a transactional negotiation, the most important issue is usually the

A) enhancing the relationship.
B) better deal.
C) dependence dynamics.
D) inventory questions.
E) all of the above.

Answer: B

Persuasion occurring through the peripheral route is

A) likely to last a shorter time than central route persuasion.
B) integrated into existing cognitive structures.
C) used to determine if the position taken by the source has any merit.
D) involves thought and integration of the message into the individual's previously existing cognitive structures.
E) None of the above occurs through the peripheral route of persuasion.

Answer: A

One way that lower power parties can deal with the big players in business deals and partnerships is by limiting the ways you can do business or who you can do business with and it is an example of one of the following dealings. Which one?

A) Never do an all-or-nothing deal.
B) Make yourself bigger.
C) Build momentum by doing deals in sequence.
D) Constrain yourself.
E) Do what you can to manage the process.

Answer: D

In which of the following five aspects of network structure would you find the role of a gatekeeper?

A) Centrality.
B) Criticality.
C) Flexibility.
D) Visibility.
E) Coalitions.

Answer: C

The concept of criticality in a communication network involves

A) the degree to which the key individual can exercise discretion in how certain decisions are made or who gains access.
B) how visible the task performance is to others in the organization.
C) the amount of information that passes through a node, the number of transactions that occur through the node, or the degree to which the node is central to managing information.
D) the essentiality of the information that flows through the node to the organization's mission, major task, or key product.
E) None of the above describes criticality in a communication network.

Answer: D

The story about the new faculty member who might decide to volunteer to head up the "speakers" program for faculty seminars because it would put him in the center of many communications about the weekly presentations is illustrative of network structure through

A) flexibility.
B) visibility.
C) centrality.
D) coalition.
E) criticality.

Answer: B

Cooperative goals tend to shape the "power with" orientation, even between superiors and subordinates. These goals induce higher expectations of all but one of the following. Which one?

A) To perform effectively and achieve common objectives.
B) To reinforce or enhance existing power differences.
C) For more assistance and greater support.
D) For more trusting and friendly attitudes.
E) For more persuasion and less coercion.

Answer: B

Resources are more useful as instruments of power to the extent they are highly valued be participants in the negotiation. Which of the following is not a resource of organizational context?

A) Money, in its various forms.
B) Supplies, in form of materials, components, parts.
C) Human capital in available labor supply, staff, temporary help.
D) Critical services, in repairs, upkeep, technical support.
E) Stress, in imposing deadlines, increasing workloads

Answer: E

Legitimate power and its effectiveness of formal authority that are derived from the willingness of the followers to:

A) create a group structure that gives one person a power base, group members generate a willingness within themselves to obey that person's directives.
B) willingly give up their right to participate in every decision by vesting authority in someone who can act on their behalf.
C) acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders.
D) simply show respect for a person's position or organization.
E) All of the above contribute to the effectiveness of legitimate power.

Answer: E

Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining situation?

A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.

Answer: A

Integrative negotiation fails because

A) negotiators fail to perceive the integrative potential of the negotiating problem.
B) of distributive assumptions about the negotiation problem.
C) of the mixed-motive nature of the issues.
D) of the negotiator's previous relationship with one another.
E) All of the above are reasons why integrative negotiations fail.

Answer: E

When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding alternatives and can use which of the following?

A) conversations over coffee breaks
B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions
C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Answer: D

Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between negotiators?

A) We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive attitude toward us.
B) We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or hurt them.
C) We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior.
D) We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions.
E) All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.

Answer: B

Which of the following is a major characteristic of a pre-settlement settlement?

A) The settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties.
B) It occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation.
C) The parties intend that the agreement will be replaced by a more clearly delineated long-term agreement which is to be negotiated.
D) It resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree, and may simply establish a framework within which the more comprehensive agreement can be defined and delineated.
E) All of the above are characteristics of a pre-settlement settlement.

Answer: E

In brainstorming

A) individuals work in a large group to select a single optimal solution.
B) all solutions are judged and critiqued as they are recorded, and a weighted-average percentage is assigned to each solution.
C) parties are urged to be spontaneous and even impractical.
D) the success of the approach depends on the item-by-item evaluation and critique of the solutions as presented.
E) None of the above is a part of the brainstorming process.

Answer: C

"What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the ... process.

A) expanding the pie
B) logrolling
C) nonspecific compensation
D) bridging
E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.

Answer: D

What questions can be asked to facilitate nonspecific compensation?

A) What are the other party's goals and values?
B) How can both parties get what they are demanding?
C) What issues are of higher and lower priority to me?
D) What risks and costs does my proposal create for the other?
E) None of the above can be used to facilitate nonspecific compensation.

Answer: A

Successful logrolling requires

A) that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue.
B) no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and assumes that simply enlarging the resources will solve the problem.
C) that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off" the other party for accommodating his/her interests.
D) a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs.
E) Successful logrolling requires all of the above.

Answer: A

Which of the following statements about interests is true?

A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute.
B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake.
C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values.
D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation.
E) All of the above statements about interests are true.

Answer: C

An interest is instrumental if

A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future.
B) the parties value the interest in and of itself.
C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation.
D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates.
E) All of the above relate to instrumental

Answer: B

The negotiator's basic strategy is to

A) get information about the opposition and its positions.
B) reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible.
C) convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals.
D) promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable.
E) All of the above.

Answer: B

Hardball tactics are designed to

A) be used primarily against powerful negotiators.
B) clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach.
C) pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do.
D) eliminate risk for the person using the tactic.
E) Hardball tactics are designed to accomplish all of the above.

Answer: C

To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could

A) give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully.
B) acknowledge the other's commitment.
C) reiterate the commitment.
D) make a joke about the commitment.
E) None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

Answer: D

A commitment statement should have a

A) low degree of finality.
B) high degree of specificity.
C) an indefinite statement of consequences.
D) a high degree of emotionality.
E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.

Answer: B

A commitment

A) should not be interpreted as a threat.
B) postpones the threat of future action.
C) is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options.
D) removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action.
E) All of the above.

Answer: D

When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that

A) the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point.
B) the resistance point is being reached.
C) the concession maker's position is weakening.
D) the negotiator has passed the resistance point.
E) None of the above.

Answer: B

The opening stance is

A) another name for the first round of concessions.
B) the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller.
C) the attitude to adopt during the negotiation.
D) a package of concessions.
E) All of the above describe the opening stance.

Answer: C

Disruptive action tactics can cause

A) embarrassment.
B) increased costs.
C) anger.
D) escalation of conflict.
E) Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the

Answer: E

The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the other's bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance points.

A) high
B) low
C) modest
D) extreme
E) None of the above.

Answer: C

The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are ... , the more modest will be the other's resistance point.

A) high
B) modest
C) extreme
D) low
E) None of the above.

Answer: D

The resistance point is established by the ... expected from a particular outcome, which is in turn the product of the ... and ... of an outcome.

A) cost, value, worth
B) value, worth, cost
C) value, cost and timeliness
D) cost, importance, value
E) None of the above.

Answer: B

Starting points

A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes.
B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way.
C) are not known to the other party.
D) are given up as concessions are made.
E) None of the above describes starting points.

Answer: A

Whereas distributive bargaining is often characterized by mistrust and suspicion, integrative negotiation is characterized by which of the following?

A) obligation and perseverance
B) avoidance and compromise
C) influence and persuasiveness
D) trust and openness
E) cognition and emotion

Answer: D

Parties pursuing one of the following strategies show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. Which of the ones listed below?

A) contending
B) compromising
C) problem solving
D) yielding
E) None of the above

Answer: E

Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy

A) show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but are quite interested in whether the other party attains his or her outcomes.
B) pursue their own outcome strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcome.
C) shows little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and does not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes.
D) show high concern for attaining their own outcomes and high concern for whether the other attains his or her outcomes.
E) Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy demonstrate none of the above behaviors.

Answer: A

An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using another of the following strategies. Which one?

A) yielding
B) compromising
C) contending
D) problem solving
E) None of the above.

Answer: C

Which of the following contribute to conflict's destructive image?

A) increased communication
B) misperception and bias
C) clarifying issues
D) minimized differences; magnified similarities
E) All of the above contribute to conflict's destructive image.

Answer: B

In intragroup conflict,

A) sources of conflict can include ideas, thoughts, emotions, values, predispositions, or drives that are in conflict with each other.
B) conflict occurs between individual people.
C) conflict affects the ability of the group to resolve differences and continue to achieve its goals effectively.
D) conflict is quite intricate because of the large number of people involved and possible interactions between them.
E) None of the above describes intragroup conflict.

Answer: C

Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation?

A) the need to look good
B) final agreed price on a contract
C) the desire to book more business
D) fear of setting a precedent
E) All of the above are intangible factors.

Answer: B

Which guideline should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus?

A) keep the range of solution options as wide as possible
B) evaluate the solutions on the basis of speed and expediency
C) keep detailed records throughout the discussion and evaluation process
D) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options
E) None of the above should be used in the evaluation process.

Answer: D

Lytle and her colleagues found that most negotiators cycled through three strategies during the same encounters. Which are the three strategies?

A) interests, information, effectiveness.
B) effectiveness, coercion, deception.
C) interests, rights, power.
D) deception, reward, position.
E) information, position, rights.

Answer: C

In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem?

A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides.
B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness.
C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal.
D) depersonalizing the problem.
E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.

Answer: B

Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation?

A) economics
B) psychology
C) anthropology
D) law
E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.

Answer: E

A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the deadline is

A) near.
B) flexible.
C) past.
D) undefined.
E) None of the above.

Answer: A

Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations?

A) a focus on commonalties
B) an attempt to address positions
C) a required exchange of information and ideas
D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance
E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.

Answer: B

Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed?

A) Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own.
B) The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own ends.
C) The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding).
D) Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and accepted.
E) All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.

Answer: A

Interdependent parties' relationships are characterized by

A) interlocking goals.
B) solitary decision making.
C) established procedures.
D) rigid structures.
E) Interdependent relationships are characterized by all of the above.

Answer: A

Information as a source of power is

A) the accumulation and presentation of data to change the other person's point of view or position on an issue.
B) an acknowledged accumulation of information, or mastery of a body of information, on a particular problem or issue.
C) the accumulation of money, raw material, manpower, time or equipment which can by used to create incentives for other people to comply, or as threats and punishments if they do not comply.
D) power derived from being located in a particular position in an organizational or communication structure.
E) Information as a source of power is all of the above.

Answer: A

In which of the following types of power based on personality and individual differences would you find a person characterized by beliefs that power is distributed relatively equally across various groups, which compete and bargain for a share of the continually evolving balance of power?

A) the unitarian.
B) the radical.
C) the pluralist.
D) the idealist.
E) the conformist.

Answer: C

To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are

A) mutually exclusive.
B) interchangeable.
C) not related.
D) interdependent.
E) None of the above.

Answer: B

Nearly 50 years ago there were five major types of sources of power that could be exercised. All but one of the following is part of that group. Which one is not?

A) Personal power.
B) Reward power.
C) Coercive power.
D) Legitimate power.
E) Referent power.

Answer: A

Integrative negotiation fails because

A moderator who sends out a questionnaire to all parties asking for input is one strategy used to avoid destructive conflict and emotion. That strategy is known as

A) nominal group technique.
B) the Delphi technique.
C) brainstorming.
D) the consensus technique.
E) the compromise technique.

Answer: B

During the information management phase, coordinators

A) "patrol" the environment and bring in relevant external information that may be useful to the group.
B) represent a formal link to some important constituency and help to acquire resources the group needs to continue to operate.
C) provide a more formal link between the group members and the constituencies they represent.
D) are specifically designated to keep some information inside the group and assure that there are no leaks or premature disclosures of key information or discussions.
E) Coordinators accomplish all of the above.

Answer: C

When a group wants to achieve a consensus or unanimous decision, the responsibility of the chair is to be constantly attentive to the group process. Identify which of the pointers below for how to chair a multiparty negotiation effectively is not correct.

A) Explicitly describe the role you will take as chair. Assure individual members that they will have an opportunity to make opening statements or other ways of placing their individual concerns and issues on the table.
B) Introduce the agenda or build one based on the group's issues, concerns, and priorities. Be an active gatekeeper.
C) Make logistical arrangements that will help the negotiation process. Listen for interests and commonalities.
D) Introduce unnecessary ground rules or let the parties suggest them to distract. Introduce internal information that will help illuminate the issues and interests.
E) Create or review decision standards and rules. Summarize frequently, particularly when conversation becomes stalled, confused, or tense

Answer: D

Which of the following questions should not be asked as part of the requirements for building a relationship in the connect model?

A) Can we agree to have a constructive conversation?
B) Can our conversation be productive enough to make a difference?
C) Can we restructure the agreement to include the original issue?
D) Can we all commit to making improvements?
E) Can we understand and appreciate each other's perspective?

Answer: C

In the Connect Model and the Requirements for Building a Relationship, what does the "t" stand for?

A) Toss it!
B) Try it!
C) Time it!
D) Track it!
E) Trash it!

Answer: D

The prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations

A) is when the parties are employing decision rules and criteria.
B) manages the group process and outcome.
C) is when the chair is appointed.
D) is characterized by lots of informal contact among the parties.
E) All of the above characterize the prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations

Answer: D

Many complex international negotiations devote a great deal of time to the question of just who will be recognized and who can speak for others. The issue about participants can be decided by asking which of the following questions?

A) Whose presence is likely to keep other parties from achieving their objectives?
B) Whose presence is likely to help other parties achieve their objectives?
C) Who could spoil the deal if they were excluded?
D) All of the above questions can help decide who to recognize.
E) None of the above questions will help determine inclusion/exclusion.

Answer: D

What are the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations?

A) the prenegotiation stage, managing the actual negotiations, and managing the agreement stage.
B) the coalition building stage, the relationship development stage, the networking stage.
C) the coalition building stage, the networking stage, and the actual negotiation stage.
D) the prenegotiation stage, the networking stage, and the managing the agreement stage.
E) None of the above lists the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations.

Answer: A

What are the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations?

Considering the many attributes of an effective group, under which one of the following would you find a need to fully explain or define key words or language that may be part of the agreement?

A) Test assumptions and inferences.
B) Focus on interests, not positions.
C) Disagree openly with any member of the group.
D) Agree on the meaning of important words.
E) Keep the discussion focused.

Answer: D

There are five ways in which the complexity increases as three or more parties simultaneously engage in negotiation. One of those listed below is not a correct statement. Which one?

A) There are simply more parties involved in the negotiation.
B) More parties bring more issues and positions to the table, and thus more perspectives must be presented and discussed.
C) When negotiations become socially more complex, the social norms emerge that affect member participation, which reduces the stronger pressures to conform and suppress disagreement.
D) As the negotiations become procedurally more complex, the parties may have to negotiate a new process that allows them to coordinate their actions more effectively.
E) As the negotiations become more strategically complex, the parties must monitor the moves and actions of several other parties in determining what each will do next.

Answer: C

One-on-one negotiations in full view of all group members would have all but one of the following consequences on negotiators. Which one would not be a consequence?

A) Negotiators who have some way to control the number of parties at the table (or even in the room) may begin to act strategically.
B) Since the exchanges are under surveillance negotiators will be sensitive to being observed and may feel the need to be tough.
C) Negotiators can simply choose to ignore the complexity of the three or more parties and proceed strategically as a two-party negotiation.
D) Negotiators can explicitly engage in coalition building as a way to marshal support.
E) Negotiators will have to find satisfactory ways to explain modification of their positions.

Answer: C

In multiparty negotiations, research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously:

A) achieved lower quality agreements.
B) increased the likelihood of achieving agreement.
C) exchanged less information.
D) have less insight into the preferences and priorities of the other parties at the table.
E) Research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously achieved all of the above.

Answer: B

What is the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations?

A) The fewer the number of parties, the more complex the decision making process becomes.
B) The increased number of negotiators will streamline the decision making process.
C) Negotiators can ignore the problem of multiple related issues.
D) Negotiators will probably have to devote discussion time to how they will manage the process to arrive at the type of solution or agreement they want.
E) All of the above are the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations.

Answer: D

One of the most fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation is that

A) the negotiation situation tends to become less lucid.
B) the negotiation situation tends to become more complex.
C) the negotiation situation tends to become more demanding.
D) there will be more values, interests, and perceptions to be integrated or accommodated.
E) All of the above are fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation.

Answer: E

Multiparty negotiations differ from two-party deliberations in which of the following ways?

A) Multiparty negotiations have more negotiators at the table.
B) More issues and more information are introduced than when two parties negotiate.
C) The environment changes from a one-on-one dialogue to small group discussion.
D) The process for multiparty negotiators is more complex than two-party ones.
E) All of the above statements about multiparty negotiations are true.

Answer: E